Lack of consent, or possibly fraud, for not using a condom and an end to spousal support payments when an ex-wife doesn't become self sufficient after 26 years

Does failing to use a condom result in a lack of consent, or constitute fraud? In a recent decision, the Court of Appeal split three ways on how failing to use a condom should be analyzed. The case they were dealing with involved two people who had only met in person on one occasion before they decided to spend the night together. The complaint performed fellatio, without asking the accused to wear a condom, but then asked him to put one on before engaging in intercourse. Later in the n...